156-315.81 Exam Study Guide Free Practice Test LAST UPDATED DATE Dec 04, 2024 [Q314-Q335]

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156-315.81 Exam Study Guide Free Practice Test LAST UPDATED DATE Dec 04, 2024

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The Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 certification provides individuals with the skills and knowledge required to successfully design, implement, and manage a comprehensive security architecture using Check Point Security Gateway and Management Software Blades. Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 certification covers topics such as advanced firewall configuration, VPN, network address translation (NAT), and advanced user management. Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 certification is intended for security professionals who want to enhance their skills and knowledge in Check Point security solutions and stay up-to-date with the latest security trends and threats.


CheckPoint 156-315.81 exam is divided into two parts: a written exam and a practical lab exam. The written exam consists of 90 multiple-choice questions that cover topics such as firewall technology, VPNs, network security, and threat prevention. The practical lab exam is a hands-on test that evaluates the candidate's ability to configure and troubleshoot Check Point security solutions.

 

NEW QUESTION # 314
What API command below creates a new host object with the name "My Host" and IP address of "192 168 0
10"?

  • A. new host name "My Host" ip-address "192 168.0.10"
  • B. set host name "My Host" ip-address "192.168.0.10"
  • C. create host name "My Host" ip-address "192.168 0.10"
  • D. mgmt.cli -m <mgmt ip> add host name "My Host" ip-address "192.168.0 10"

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 315
Please choose correct command to add an "emailserver1" host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

  • A. add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90
  • B. mgmt: add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90
  • C. host name myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90
  • D. mgmt: add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 316
How can you grant GAiAAPI Permissions for a newly created user?

  • A. No need to grant access since every user has access by default.
  • B. Assign the user a permission profile in SmartConsole
  • C. In bash, use the following command: "gaia_api access --user Tom -enable true"
  • D. Assign the user the admin RBAC role in dish

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
To grant GAiAAPI permissions for a newly created user, you need to assign the user a permission profile in SmartConsole. A permission profile defines the access level and scope of actions that a user can perform using the GAiAAPI. You can choose from predefined permission profiles or create your own custom profiles. You cannot grant GAiAAPI permissions using dish or bash commands. References: [Check Point Security Expert R81 API Reference Guide], page 9.


NEW QUESTION # 317
In which VPN community is a satellite VPN gateway not allowed to create a VPN tunnel with another satellite VPN gateway?

  • A. Pentagon
  • B. Meshed
  • C. Combined
  • D. Star

Answer: D

Explanation:
A star VPN community is a type of VPN community that allows a central gateway to create VPN tunnels with multiple satellite gateways or hosts, but does not allow satellite gateways or hosts to create VPN tunnels with each other. This type of community is suitable for hub-and-spoke topologies, where the central gateway acts as the hub and the satellite gateways or hosts act as the spokes. The central gateway can initiate or terminate VPN traffic to any satellite member, but the satellite members can only initiate or terminate VPN traffic to the central gateway.


NEW QUESTION # 318
Which one is not a valid Package Option In the Web GUI for CPUSE?

  • A. Clean Install
  • B. Database Conversion to R81.10 only
  • C. Upgrade
  • D. Export Package

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
CPUSE (Check Point Upgrade Service Engine) is a tool that allows users to download, import, install, and uninstall software packages on Gaia OS. CPUSE has a web-based user interface that can be accessed through Gaia Portal. CPUSE offers four package options in the web GUI for different purposes4:
Clean Install - This option performs a clean installation of a Major Version package, which erases all existing configuration and data on the system.
Export Package - This option exports a package from CPUSE repository to an external location for backup or transfer purposes.
Upgrade - This option performs an upgrade of a Major Version package or a Minor Version package, which preserves the existing configuration and data on the system.
Database Conversion - This option converts the database schema of a Major Version package to match the current version.
Therefore, the correct answer is B.
References: 4: CPUSE - Gaia Deployment Agent


NEW QUESTION # 319
On what port does the CPM process run?

  • A. TCP 19009
  • B. TCP 18192
  • C. TCP 857
  • D. TCP 900

Answer: A

Explanation:
The port that the CPM process runs on is TCP 19009. CPM stands for Check Point Management, and it is the main process that runs on the Security Management Server and interacts with SmartConsole clients. CPM is responsible for managing policies, objects, logs, tasks, and other management functions. CPM listens on TCP port 19009 for incoming connections from SmartConsole clients. The other ports are either used by other processes or not related to CPM.


NEW QUESTION # 320
On R81.20 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port:

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
On R81.20, when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API), the default Log Server uses port 18184. This port can be changed using the lea_server command in expert mode.
The other ports are either not related to LEA, or used for different purposes, such as 18210 for CPMI, 257 for FW1_log, and 18191 for SIC. References: [Check Point R81 Logging and Monitoring Administration Guide],
[Check Point Ports Used for Communication by Various Check Point Modules]


NEW QUESTION # 321
Alice & Bob are going to use Management Data Plane Separation and therefore the routing separation needs to be enabled. Which of the following command is true for enabling the Management Data Plane Separation (MDPS):

  • A. set mdps split brain on
  • B. set mdps split plane on
  • C. set mdps mgmt plane on
  • D. set mdps data plane off

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct command for enabling the management data plane separation (MDPS) is set mdps mgmt plane on. This command enables routing separation between management and data planes on a security gateway. This means that management traffic will use a different routing table than data traffic, which can improve security and performance. Reference: [Check Point Security Expert R81 Administration Guide], page 76.


NEW QUESTION # 322
Which of the following Check Point commands is true to enable Multi-Version Cluster (MVC)?

  • A. Check Point Security Gateway Only: set cluster member mvc on
  • B. Check Point Security Gateway Cluster Member: set cluster member mvc on
  • C. Check Point Security Management HA (Secondary): set cluster member mvc on
  • D. Check Point Security Management HA (Primary): set cluster member mvc on

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 323
What is the limitation of employing Sticky Decision Function?

  • A. With SDF enabled, only ClusterXL in legacy mode is supported
  • B. With SDF enabled, the involved VPN Gateways only supports IKEv1
  • C. With SDF enabled, you can only have three Sync interfaces at most
  • D. Acceleration technologies, such as SecureXL and CoreXL are disabled when activating SDF

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 324
Which command can you use to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?

  • A. cpmq set
  • B. St cpmq enable
  • C. Cpmq config
  • D. Cpmqueue set

Answer: A

Explanation:
The cpmq set command enables or disables multi-queue per interface. Multi-queue is a feature that allows distributing the network traffic among several CPU cores, improving the throughput and performance of the Security Gateway. Reference: Multi-Queue


NEW QUESTION # 325
Which two Cluster Solutions are available under R81.10?

  • A. VRRP and IP Clustering
  • B. VRRPandHSRP
  • C. ClusterXL and VRitP
  • D. ClusterXL and NSRP

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
ClusterXL and VRRP are the two cluster solutions that are available under R81.10. According to the ClusterXL R81.10 Administration Guide1, ClusterXL is a Check Point software-based clustering solution that provides high availability and load sharing for Check Point Security Gateways and Cluster Members.
ClusterXL supports two modes: High Availability and Load Sharing. In High Availability mode, all Cluster Members are connected to the same network segment and share a virtual IP address. One member is active and handles all traffic, while the others are in standby mode and ready to take over in case of a failure. In Load Sharing mode, all Cluster Members are active and share the traffic load according to a predefined algorithm. ClusterXL supports both unicast and multicast modes for Load Sharing1.
VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol) is an industry standard protocol that provides high availability for routers or firewalls by creating a virtual router with a virtual IP address that is shared by a group of routers or firewalls. One router or firewall is elected as the master and handles all traffic directed to the virtual IP address, while the others are backups that monitor the master and take over if it fails. VRRP can be used with Check Point Security Gateways to provide redundancy and failover for external interfaces1.
NSRP (NetScreen Redundancy Protocol) is a proprietary protocol developed by Juniper Networks that provides high availability and load balancing for NetScreen firewalls. NSRP is not supported by Check Point products2.
HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol) is a Cisco proprietary protocol that provides high availability for routers by creating a virtual router with a virtual IP address that is shared by a group of routers. One router is elected as the active router and handles all traffic directed to the virtual IP address, while another router is elected as the standby router and monitors the active router and takes over if it fails. HSRP is not supported by Check Point products.
IP Clustering is a feature of Linux Virtual Server (LVS) that provides high availability and load balancing for IP-based services by creating a cluster of real servers that are accessed through a virtual IP address. The cluster is managed by a director that routes requests to the real servers according to a scheduling algorithm. IP Clustering is not supported by Check Point products.
References: : ClusterXL R81.10 Administration Guide : Check Point R81.10 : Solved: R81.10 - Check Point CheckMates : [Hot Standby Router Protocol - Wikipedia] : [Linux Virtual Server - Wikipedia]


NEW QUESTION # 326
Advanced Security Checkups can be easily conducted within:

  • A. Reports
  • B. Summary
  • C. Checkups
  • D. Advanced
  • E. Views

Answer: A

Explanation:
Advanced Security Checkups can be easily conducted within the Reports tab in the Logs & Monitor view in SmartConsole. The Reports tab allows you to generate and view various reports that provide insights into the security status and performance of your network. You can use predefined reports or create custom reports based on your needs. You can also schedule reports to run automatically and send them by email. Some of the predefined reports that can help you conduct advanced security checkups are:
Security Overview: This report provides a summary of the security posture of your network, including the number and severity of incidents, the top attacked hosts and services, the top attackers and attack methods, the top detected threats and vulnerabilities, etc.
Security Best Practices: This report evaluates your security configuration and policy against the Check Point best practices and provides recommendations for improvement. It covers areas such as firewall policy, NAT policy, VPN policy, identity awareness, threat prevention, etc.
Compliance Status: This report assesses your compliance level with various regulations and standards, such as PCI DSS, ISO 27001, NIST 800-53, etc. It shows the compliance score, the compliance status of each requirement, the compliance status of each gateway and blade, etc.
Network Activity: This report shows the network activity and traffic patterns on your network, including the top sources and destinations of traffic, the top protocols and applications used, the top bandwidth consumers, etc.
System Health: This report monitors the health and performance of your management server and gateways, including the CPU utilization, memory usage, disk space, network interfaces, etc. Reference: R81 Logging and Monitoring Administration Guide


NEW QUESTION # 327
What CLI utility runs connectivity tests from a Security Gateway to an AD domain controller?

  • A. test_ldap_connectivity -d <domain>
  • B. test_ad_connectivity -d <domain>
  • C. test_connectivity_ad -d <domain>
  • D. ad_connectivity_test -d <domain>

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The CLI utility that runs connectivity tests from a Security Gateway to an AD domain controller is test_ad_connectivity -d <domain>. This command tests the connectivity between the gateway and the domain controller using LDAP, Kerberos, and WMI protocols. It also verifies the identity awareness configuration and shows the relevant logs3. The other options are not valid commands for testing AD connectivity. References: 3: Check Point Software, Getting Started, Testing Active Directory Connectivity.


NEW QUESTION # 328
In terms of Order Rule Enforcement, when a packet arrives at the gateway, the gateway checks it against the rules in the top Policy Layer, sequentially from top to bottom Which of the following statements is correct?

  • A. If the Action of the matching rule is Drop, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down
  • B. If the Action of the matching rule is Accept the gateway will drop the packet
  • C. If the rule does not matched in the Network policy it will continue to other enabled polices
  • D. If the Action of the matching rule is Drop the gateway stops matching against later rules in the Policy Rule Base and drops the packet

Answer: D

Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/CP_R81_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R81/CP_R81_SecMGMT/126197


NEW QUESTION # 329
For best practices, what is the recommended time for automatic unlocking of locked admin accounts?

  • A. 15 minutes
  • B. 20 minutes
  • C. 30 minutes at least
  • D. Admin account cannot be unlocked automatically

Answer: C

Explanation:
For best practices, the recommended time for automatic unlocking of locked admin accounts is 30 minutes at least. Admin accounts can be locked due to failed login attempts, password expiration, or manual locking by another admin. To prevent unauthorized access or brute force attacks, locked admin accounts should not be unlocked automatically too soon. The recommended minimum time for automatic unlocking is 30 minutes, which can be configured from the SmartConsole under Manage > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Unlock locked administrators after.


NEW QUESTION # 330
Which of the following is a new R81 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

  • A. Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.
  • B. Sub Policies ae sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.
  • C. The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.
  • D. Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Sub Policies are a new R81 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older. Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule. This allows for more granular and modular control over the policy. The other features were already available in previous versions . References: Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide, Check Point R77 Security Management Administration Guide, Check Point R77 Gaia Administration Guide, Check Point R77 Security Gateway Technical Administration Guide


NEW QUESTION # 331
To add a file to the Threat Prevention Whitelist, what two items are needed?

  • A. IP address of Management Server and Gateway
  • B. File name and Gateway
  • C. Object Name and MD5 signature
  • D. MD5 signature and Gateway

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
To add a file to the Threat Prevention Whitelist, you need two items:
B: Object Name and MD5 signature
You need the Object Name to identify the file or object you want to whitelist, and the MD5 signature to specify the unique hash value of that file. The MD5 signature ensures that the specific file you want to whitelist is identified accurately.
References: Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 Study Guide, Threat Prevention Administration Guide.


NEW QUESTION # 332
To help SmartEvent determine whether events originated internally or externally you must define using the Initial Settings under General Settings in the Policy Tab. How many options are available to calculate the traffic direction?

  • A. 4 Incoming; Outgoing; Internal; Other
  • B. 5 Network; Host; Objects; Services; API
  • C. 2 Internal; External
  • D. 3 Incoming; Outgoing; Network

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 333
When Identity Awareness is enabled, which identity source(s) is(are) used for Application Control?

  • A. AD Query
  • B. RADIUS
  • C. AD Query and Browser-based Authentication
  • D. Remote Access and RADIUS

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
When Identity Awareness is enabled, AD Query and Browser-based Authentication are used as identity sources for Application Control. AD Query allows the Security Gateway to query Active Directory servers for identity information based on IP addresses. Browser-based Authentication allows the Security Gateway to redirect unidentified users to a captive portal where they can authenticate with their credentials. These identity sources provide accurate and up-to-date identity information for Application Control, which can enforce granular policies based on user, group, machine, and domain objects. References: R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide, page 9.


NEW QUESTION # 334
Which view is NOT a valid CPVIEW view?

  • A. VPN
  • B. PDP
  • C. RAD
  • D. IDA

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
PDP is not a valid CPVIEW view. CPVIEW is a command-line tool that shows the status of different system parameters, such as CPU, memory, disk, network, and firewall. The valid views are IDA, RAD, VPN, FW, QoS, and others. PDP is a process that handles identity awareness and authentication. References: Check Point R81 Gaia Administration Guide, Check Point Identity Awareness Administration Guide R81


NEW QUESTION # 335
......


Preparation for the Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 exam requires a solid understanding of network security concepts, as well as hands-on experience with Check Point’s security solutions. Candidates can take advantage of online training courses, study guides, and practice tests to prepare for the exam. Additionally, Check Point offers a certification program that provides candidates with access to valuable resources and support.

 

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