[Jul-2026] 312-50v13 Dumps Full Questions - CEH v13 Exam Study Guide [Q58-Q80]

[Jul-2026] 312-50v13 Dumps Full Questions - CEH v13 Exam Study Guide

Exam Questions and Answers for 312-50v13 Study Guide

NEW QUESTION # 58
As a Certified Ethical Hacker assessing session management vulnerabilities in a secure web application using MFA, encrypted cookies, and a WAF, which technique would most effectively exploit a session management weakness while bypassing these defenses?

• A. Executing a Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack
• B. Conducting Session Sidejacking using captured session tokens
• C. Utilizing Session Fixation to force a victim to use a known session ID
• D. Exploiting insecure deserialization vulnerabilities for code execution

Answer: C

Explanation:
The CEH Web Application Hacking module identifies Session Fixation as a powerful session management attack that can bypass advanced authentication controls, including MFA.
In session fixation, the attacker forces the victim to authenticate using a session ID already known to the attacker. Once authentication completes, the attacker hijacks the valid session without needing credentials.
Option A directly targets session management logic.
Option B exploits authorization logic, not session handling.
Option C is unrelated to session management.
Option D is mitigated by encrypted cookies and HTTPS.
CEH explicitly warns that applications must regenerate session IDs after authentication.

NEW QUESTION # 59
During a controlled red team engagement at a financial institution in New Jersey, ethical hacker Ryan tests the bank's resilience against stealth-based malware. He plants a custom malicious program on an employee workstation. After execution, he observes that the infected files continue to function normally, but his malware conceals its modifications by intercepting operating system calls. Antivirus scans repeatedly return
"no threats detected," even though the malicious code remains active and hidden on the system.
Which type of virus did Ryan most likely deploy in this assessment?

• A. Macro Virus
• B. Polymorphic Virus
• C. Stealth Virus
• D. Cavity Virus

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Stealth Virus because the defining characteristic described is hiding malicious presence by intercepting operating system calls and masking changes so that normal tools (including antivirus scans) do not observe the infection. In CEH-aligned malware concepts, stealth viruses are designed to evade detection by concealing modifications to files, boot records, or system areas. They commonly do this by hooking system functions or APIs so that when the OS or a security product requests file contents, sizes, checksums, directory listings, or other metadata, the virus returns clean-looking or original data instead of the infected/modified version. This makes infected files appear to "function normally," while the malware remains active in memory and persists on disk.
The scenario explicitly mentions that "infected files continue to function normally" and that the malware
"conceals its modifications by intercepting operating system calls." That is the classic behavior of stealth techniques: manipulate what the system reports, not necessarily change the outward behavior of the application. The repeated "no threats detected" results also align: signature-based or basic scanning can be blinded when the malware controls the interface through which the scanner reads target files or system structures.
Why the other options are less correct: a polymorphic virus focuses on changing its code/signature between infections to evade signature-based detection, but the key clue here is OS call interception and hiding modifications, not code mutation. A macro virus targets macro-enabled documents and spreads through macro execution in office applications; it is not primarily defined by OS-level call hooking. A cavity virus (spacefiller) hides by inserting itself into unused areas of a file without changing the file size, but the scenario' s emphasis is on intercepting OS calls to conceal changes, which is more directly the stealth-virus behavior.
Therefore, Ryan most likely deployed a stealth virus.

NEW QUESTION # 60
Samuel, a security administrator, is assessing the configuration of a web server. He noticed that the server permits SSLv2 connections, and the same private key certificate is used on a different server that allows SSLv2 connections. This vulnerability makes the web server vulnerable to attacks as the SSLv2 server can leak key information. Which of the following attacks can be performed by exploiting the above vulnerability?

• A. DROWN attack
• B. DUHK attack
• C. Side-channel attack
• D. Padding oracle attack

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 61
When a security analyst prepares for the formal security assessment, what of the following should be done in order to determine inconsistencies in the secure assets database and verify that system is compliant to the minimum security baseline?

• A. Data items and vulnerability scanning
• B. Interviewing employees and network engineers
• C. Source code review
• D. Reviewing the firewalls configuration

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
To identify inconsistencies in secure asset records and confirm that systems meet baseline security standards, vulnerability scanning and checking data items (e.g., configuration settings, software versions) is essential.
This helps the analyst discover gaps between expected and actual system states.
From CEH v13 Official Curriculum:
* Module 5: Vulnerability Assessment # Security Assessment Techniques
* "Automated vulnerability scanners and asset inventories help validate that systems are compliant with security baselines." Reference: CEH v13 Study Guide, Section on Security Assessment Planning.

NEW QUESTION # 62
Bob, a seasoned security analyst at XYZ Aerospace, was investigating a series of misaligned transaction timestamps coming from one of the data archival systems. Suspecting that the server might be syncing with an unstable time source, Bob decided to extract a detailed list of all peer servers associated with the target machine, including metrics such as delay, offset, and jitter, to determine whether the issue stemmed from time synchronization drift.
Which of the following commands should Bob use to retrieve this information?

• A. ntpq -p [host]
• B. ntpdc [-n] [-s] [-c command] [host] [...]
• C. ntptrace [-n] [-m maxhosts] [servername/IP_address]
• D. ntpq [-n] [-l] [-c command] [host] [...]

Answer: A

Explanation:
The command that best matches Bob's goal is ntpq -p. In CEH-aligned coverage of network services and operational troubleshooting, NTP is highlighted as a critical dependency because inaccurate time can break authentication, distort logs, and cause incorrect transaction ordering. When investigating suspected time drift, the most useful first step is to view the active NTP associations and their quality metrics. The ntpq utility queries an NTP daemon and reports peer status and performance data. Specifically, ntpq -p displays a peer table that includes each configured or discovered time source along with fields such as delay, offset, and jitter.
These values help determine whether the server is locked to a stable source or being influenced by a poor or rogue time server. Offset indicates how far the local clock differs from the peer, delay reflects network latency to the peer, and jitter shows the variability in timing measurements, all of which are directly mentioned in the question.
Option A, ntptrace, is used to trace the chain of NTP servers back to a reference clock and is useful for understanding hierarchy, but it does not provide the detailed delay, offset, and jitter peer metrics in the same way. Option C, ntpdc, is an older monitoring tool that can query NTP, but CEH references more commonly emphasize ntpq for peer statistics and associations. Option D is a generic ntpq invocation with interactive command support, but the -p option is the explicit mode that outputs the peer list with the required metrics.

NEW QUESTION # 63
In the bustling city of Chicago, Illinois, ethical hacker Sophia Nguyen is contracted by TaskFlow Systems, a U.S.-based project management provider, to review the security of its template upload feature. During testing, Sophia discovers that by modifying the input parameters in an upload request, she can trick the application into retrieving sensitive files from the server's local directories. This flaw allows her to view internal configuration files that should never be exposed through the web interface. She records her findings in a report for TaskFlow's security team.

• A. File Injection
• B. Local File Inclusion
• C. Cookie Poisoning
• D. Insecure Deserialization

Answer: B

Explanation:
Manipulating input parameters to make the application retrieve and display files from local directories without authorization is characteristic of a Local File Inclusion (LFI) vulnerability.

NEW QUESTION # 64
Given the complexities of an organization's network infrastructure, a threat actor has exploited an unidentified vulnerability, leading to a major data breach. As a Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH), you are tasked with enhancing the organization's security stance. To ensure a comprehensive security defense, you recommend a certain security strategy. Which of the following best represents the strategy you would likely suggest and why?

• A. Implement an Information Assurance (IA) policy focusing on ensuring the integrity, availability, confidentiality, and authenticity of information systems.
• B. Establish a Defense-in-Depth strategy, incorporating multiple layers of security measures to increase the complexity and decrease the likelihood of a successful attack.
• C. Adopt a Continual/Adaptive Security Strategy involving ongoing prediction, prevention, detection, and response actions to ensure comprehensive computer network defense.
• D. Develop an in-depth Risk Management process, involving identification, assessment, treatment, tracking, and review of risks to control the potential effects on the organization.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The security strategy that you would likely suggest is to adopt a Continual/Adaptive Security Strategy involving ongoing prediction, prevention, detection, and response actions to ensure comprehensive computer network defense. This strategy is based on the concept of continuous monitoring and improvement of the security posture of an organization, using a feedback loop that integrates various security activities and technologies. A Continual/Adaptive Security Strategy aims to proactively identify and mitigate emerging threats, vulnerabilities, and risks, as well as to respond effectively and efficiently to security incidents and breaches. A Continual/Adaptive Security Strategy can help enhance the organization's security stance by providing the following benefits12:
It can reduce the attack surface and the exposure time of the organization's network infrastructure, by applying timely patches, updates, and configurations, as well as by implementing security controls and policies.
It can increase the visibility and awareness of the organization's network activity and behavior, by collecting, analyzing, and correlating data from various sources, such as logs, sensors, alerts, and reports.
It can improve the detection and prevention capabilities of the organization, by using advanced tools and techniques, such as artificial intelligence, machine learning, threat intelligence, and behavioral analytics, to identify and block malicious or anomalous patterns and indicators.
It can enhance the response and recovery processes of the organization, by using automated and orchestrated actions, such as isolation, quarantine, remediation, and restoration, to contain and resolve security incidents and breaches, as well as by conducting lessons learned and root cause analysis to prevent recurrence.
The other options are not as appropriate as option C for the following reasons:
A). Develop an in-depth Risk Management process, involving identification, assessment, treatment, tracking, and review of risks to control the potential effects on the organization: This option is not sufficient because risk management is only one aspect of a comprehensive security strategy, and it does not address the dynamic and evolving nature of cyber threats and vulnerabilities. Risk management is a process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the risks that may affect the organization's objectives and operations, as well as monitoring and reviewing the effectiveness of the risk treatment measures3. Risk management can help the organization prioritize and allocate resources for security, but it cannot guarantee the prevention or detection of security incidents and breaches, nor the response and recovery from them.
B). Establish a Defense-in-Depth strategy, incorporating multiple layers of security measures to increase the complexity and decrease the likelihood of a successful attack: This option is not optimal because defense-in- depth is a traditional and static approach to security, and it may not be able to cope with the sophisticated and persistent attacks that exploit unknown or zero-day vulnerabilities. Defense-in-depth is a strategy of implementing multiple and diverse security controls and mechanisms at different layers of the organization's network infrastructure, such as perimeter, network, endpoint, application, and data, to provide redundancy and resilience against attacks4. Defense-in-depth can help the organization protect its assets and systems from unauthorized access or damage, but it cannot ensure the timely detection and response to security incidents and breaches, nor the continuous improvement of the security posture.
D). Implement an Information Assurance (IA) policy focusing on ensuring the integrity, availability, confidentiality, and authenticity of information systems: This option is not comprehensive because information assurance is a subset of cybersecurity, and it does not cover all the aspects of a holistic security strategy. Information assurance is a discipline of managing the risks associated with the use, processing, storage, and transmission of information and data, and ensuring the protection of the information and data from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction5. Information assurance can help the organization safeguard its information and data from compromise or loss, but it does not address the prevention, detection, and response to security incidents and breaches, nor the adaptation and innovation of the security technologies and processes.
References:
1: Continual/Adaptive Security Strategy - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
2: Continual Adaptive Security: A New Approach to Cybersecurity | SecurityWeek.Com
3: Risk Management - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
4: Defense in Depth - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
5: Information Assurance - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics

NEW QUESTION # 65
A penetration tester performs a vulnerability scan on a company's network and identifies a critical vulnerability related to an outdated version of a database server. What should the tester prioritize as the next step?

• A. Perform a denial-of-service (DoS) attack on the database server
• B. Ignore the vulnerability and move on to testing other systems
• C. Attempt to exploit the vulnerability using publicly available tools or exploits
• D. Conduct a brute-force attack on the database login page

Answer: C

Explanation:
CEH v13 details the standard penetration testing workflow, where confirmed critical vulnerabilities- especially those affecting core systems like database servers-should be prioritized for exploitation only after verification and when explicitly permitted by the rules of engagement. Exploiting a known vulnerability using vetted tools (e.g., Metasploit, CVE-specific exploits) provides evidence of real-world risk and validates the severity rating. Brute-forcing logins (Option B) is inefficient and often outside scope. Ignoring a critical vulnerability (Option C) violates CEH's prioritization guidelines. A DoS attack (Option D) is never appropriate unless the engagement explicitly authorizes destructive testing, which is rare. CEH stresses that high-impact vulnerabilities should be exploited to demonstrate business risk, privilege escalation potential, data exposure, or lateral movement possibilities-making Option A fully aligned with CEH methodology.

NEW QUESTION # 66
Thomas, a cloud security professional, is performing security assessment on cloud services to identify any loopholes. He detects a vulnerability in a bare-metal cloud server that can enable hackers to implant malicious backdoors in its firmware. He also identified that an installed backdoor can persist even if the server is reallocated to new clients or businesses that use it as an laaS.
What is the type of cloud attack that can be performed by exploiting the vulnerability discussed in the above scenario?

• A. Cloud cryptojacking
• B. Man-in-the-cloud (MITC) attack
• C. Cloudborne attack
• D. Metadata spoofing attack

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 67
Sarah, a cybersecurity analyst at a US-based e-commerce company in New York, is tasked with evaluating the company's transition to a cloud-based infrastructure to support its growing online platform. The company aims to optimize resource allocation to handle fluctuating customer demand during peak shopping seasons, such as Black Friday. Sarah must recommend a key characteristic of cloud computing that ensures resources are efficiently shared across multiple users while maintaining scalability.
Which cloud computing characteristic should Sarah recommend ensuring efficient resource sharing and scalability for the e-commerce platform?

• A. On-demand self-service
• B. Broad network access
• C. Resource pooling
• D. Measured service

Answer: C

Explanation:
In Certified Ethical Hacker cloud computing coverage, the essential characteristics of cloud services align with the widely adopted NIST cloud model. The requirement in this scenario is twofold: efficient sharing of resources across multiple users and the ability to scale to meet spikes in demand such as Black Friday traffic.
The cloud characteristic that directly addresses efficient sharing is resource pooling. Resource pooling means the cloud provider aggregates compute, storage, memory, and network resources into a shared pool that serves multiple customers using a multi-tenant model. Resources are dynamically assigned and reassigned according to consumer demand, which enables rapid scaling without requiring the organization to purchase and install new physical infrastructure for each surge.
This matches the scenario's emphasis on optimizing resource allocation and ensuring scalability. With resource pooling, the platform can draw from shared infrastructure capacity when demand rises and release it when demand drops, improving efficiency and cost effectiveness. In CEH terms, this also influences security considerations such as tenant isolation, hypervisor security, and access control, because multiple customers may rely on the same underlying physical hardware while remaining logically separated.
The other options are not the best match for "efficiently shared across multiple users." Measured service focuses on metering and pay-as-you-go billing. Broad network access describes availability over networks and standard client platforms. On-demand self-service refers to a consumer's ability to provision resources automatically without human interaction from the provider. Those are important cloud traits, but the one that specifically enables shared infrastructure and elastic allocation is resource pooling.

NEW QUESTION # 68
An ethical hacker is hired to conduct a comprehensive network scan of a large organization that strongly suspects potential intrusions into their internal systems. The hacker decides to employ a combination of scanning tools to obtain a detailed understanding of the network. Which sequence of actions would provide the most comprehensive information about the network's status?

• A. Initiate with Nmap for a ping sweep, then use Metasploit to scan for open ports and services, and finally use Hping3 to perform remote OS fingerprinting
• B. Start with Hping3 for a UDP scan on random ports, then use Nmap for a version detection scan, and finally use Metasploit to exploit detected vulnerabilities
• C. Use Hping3 for an ICMP ping scan on the entire subnet, then use Nmap for a SYN scan on identified active hosts, and finally use Metasploit to exploit identified vulnerabilities
• D. Begin with NetScanTools Pro for a general network scan, then use Nmap for OS detection and version detection, and finally perform an SYN flooding with Hping3

Answer: C

Explanation:
The sequence of actions that would provide the most comprehensive information about the network's status is to use Hping3 for an ICMP ping scan on the entire subnet, then use Nmap for a SYN scan on identified active hosts, and finally use Metasploit to exploit identified vulnerabilities. This sequence of actions works as follows:
* Use Hping3 for an ICMP ping scan on the entire subnet: This action is used to discover the active hosts on the network by sending ICMP echo request packets to each possible IP address on the subnet and waiting for ICMP echo reply packets from the hosts. Hping3 is a command-line tool that can craft and send custom packets, such as TCP, UDP, or ICMP, and analyze the responses. By using Hping3 for an ICMP ping scan, the hacker can quickly and efficiently identify the live hosts on the network, as well as their response times and packet loss rates12.
* Use Nmap for a SYN scan on identified active hosts: This action is used to scan the open ports and services on the active hosts by sending TCP SYN packets to a range of ports and analyzing the TCP responses. Nmap is a popular and powerful tool that can perform various types of network scans, such as port scanning, service detection, OS detection, and vulnerability scanning. By using Nmap for a SYN scan, the hacker can determine the state of the ports on the active hosts, such as open, closed, filtered, or unfiltered, as well as the services and protocols running on them. A SYN scan is also known as a stealth scan, as it does not complete the TCP three-way handshake and thus avoids logging on the target system34.
* Use Metasploit to exploit identified vulnerabilities: This action is used to exploit the vulnerabilities on the active hosts by using pre-built or custom modules that leverage the open ports and services.
Metasploit is a framework that contains a collection of tools and modules for penetration testing and exploitation. By using Metasploit, the hacker can launch various attacks on the active hosts, such as remote code execution, privilege escalation, or backdoor installation, and gain access to the target system or data. Metasploit can also be used to perform post-exploitation tasks, such as gathering information, maintaining persistence, or pivoting to other systems .
The other options are not as comprehensive as option B for the following reasons:
* A. Initiate with Nmap for a ping sweep, then use Metasploit to scan for open ports and services, and finally use Hping3 to perform remote OS fingerprinting: This option is not optimal because it does not use the tools in the most efficient and effective way. Nmap can perform a ping sweep, but it is slower and less flexible than Hping3, which can craft and send custom packets. Metasploit can scan for open ports and services, but it is more suitable for exploitation than scanning, and it relies on Nmap for port scanning anyway. Hping3 can perform remote OS fingerprinting, but it is less accurate and reliable than Nmap, which can use various techniques and probes to determine the OS type and version13 .
* C. Start with Hping3 for a UDP scan on random ports, then use Nmap for a version detection scan, and finally use Metasploit to exploit detected vulnerabilities: This option is not effective because it does not use the best scanning methods and techniques. Hping3 can perform a UDP scan, but it is slower and less reliable than a TCP scan, as UDP is a connectionless protocol that does not always generate responses. Scanning random ports is also inefficient and incomplete, as it may miss important ports or services. Nmap can perform a version detection scan, but it is more useful to perform a port scan first, as it can narrow down the scope and speed up the scan. Metasploit can exploit detected vulnerabilities, but it is not clear how the hacker can identify the vulnerabilities without performing a vulnerability scan first13 .
* D. Begin with NetScanTools Pro for a general network scan, then use Nmap for OS detection and version detection, and finally perform an SYN flooding with Hping3: This option is not comprehensive because it does not cover all the aspects and objectives of a network scan. NetScanTools Pro is a graphical tool that can perform various network tasks, such as ping, traceroute, DNS lookup, or port scan, but it is less powerful and versatile than Nmap or Hping3, which can perform more advanced and customized scans. Nmap can perform OS detection and version detection, but it is more useful to perform a port scan first, as it can provide more information and insights into the target system. Performing an SYN flooding with Hping3 is not a network scan, but a denial-of-service attack, which can disrupt the network and alert the target system, and it is not an ethical or legal action for a hired hacker13 .
References:
1: Hping - Wikipedia
2: Hping3 Examples - NetworkProGuide
3: Nmap - Wikipedia
4: Nmap Tutorial: From Discovery to Exploits - Part 1: Introduction to Nmap | HackerTarget.com
5: Metasploit Project - Wikipedia
6: Metasploit Unleashed - Offensive Security
7: NetScanTools Pro - Northwest Performance Software, Inc.

NEW QUESTION # 69
Which attack abuses scheduled tasks?

• A. Reconnaissance
• B. Persistence
• C. Sniffing
• D. DoS

Answer: B

Explanation:
Attackers abuse scheduled tasks to maintain persistence by automatically executing malicious code at specific times or during system events, allowing continued access to the compromised system.

NEW QUESTION # 70
During a penetration test at Lone Star Healthcare in Austin, ethical hacker Liam evaluates the hospital's perimeter defenses by generating controlled traffic flows through the firewall. He uses a tool that can create and replay diverse traffic patterns to test how well the firewall enforces its rules against both legitimate and malicious traffic types. This allows him to demonstrate whether the device properly identifies evasion attempts under simulated attack conditions. Which tool is Liam most likely using in this test?

• A. Metasploit
• B. Traffic IQ Professional
• C. Colasoft Packet Builder
• D. Nmap

Answer: C

Explanation:
Colasoft Packet Builder allows the creation and replay of custom network traffic patterns, enabling testing of firewalls and other security devices against evasion techniques and rule enforcement.

NEW QUESTION # 71
An Android device has an unpatched permission-handling flaw and updated antivirus. What is the most effective undetected exploitation approach?

• A. Custom exploit with obfuscation
• B. SMS phishing
• C. Rootkit installation
• D. Metasploit payload

Answer: A

Explanation:
CEH v13 explains that mobile antivirus solutions rely heavily on signatures and known exploit patterns. A custom exploit using obfuscation is far more likely to evade detection.
Metasploit payloads and rootkits are commonly flagged, and SMS phishing relies on user interaction.
Therefore, custom obfuscated exploit code is the most stealthy and effective method.

NEW QUESTION # 72
At Norwest Freight Services, a rotating audit team is asked to evaluate host exposure across multiple departments following a suspected misconfiguration incident. Simon, a junior analyst working from a trusted subnet, initiates a network-wide scan using the default configuration profile of his assessment tool. The tool completes quickly but returns only partial insights such as open service ports and version banners while deeper registry settings, user policies, and missing patches remain unreported. Midway through the report review, Simon notices that system login prompts were never triggered during scanning, and no credential failures were logged in the SIEM. Which type of vulnerability scan BEST explains the behavior observed in Simon's assessment?

• A. Internal Scan
• B. Credentialed Scanning
• C. Authenticated Scanning
• D. Unauthenticated Scanning

Answer: D

Explanation:
The scan did not use credentials, as evidenced by the absence of login attempts or authentication logs. It only gathered surface-level information such as open ports and service banners, which is typical of a scan performed without authentication, preventing access to deeper system details like registry settings, policies, and patch status.

NEW QUESTION # 73
Abel, a security professional, conducts penetration testing in his client organization to check for any security loopholes. He launched an attack on the DHCP servers by broadcasting forged DHCP requests and leased all the DHCP addresses available in the DHCP scope until the server could not issue any more IP addresses. This led to a Dos attack, and as a result, legitimate employees were unable to access the clients network. Which of the following attacks did Abel perform in the above scenario?

• A. Rogue DHCP server attack
• B. DHCP starvation
• C. VLAN hopping
• D. STP attack

Answer: B

Explanation:
A DHCP starvation assault is a pernicious computerized assault that objectives DHCP workers. During a DHCP assault, an unfriendly entertainer floods a DHCP worker with false DISCOVER bundles until the DHCP worker debilitates its stock of IP addresses. When that occurs, the aggressor can deny genuine organization clients administration, or even stock an other DHCP association that prompts a Man-in-the- Middle (MITM) assault.
In a DHCP Starvation assault, a threatening entertainer sends a huge load of false DISCOVER parcels until the DHCP worker thinks they've used their accessible pool. Customers searching for IP tends to find that there are no IP addresses for them, and they're refused assistance. Furthermore, they may search for an alternate DHCP worker, one which the unfriendly entertainer may give. What's more, utilizing a threatening or sham IP address, that unfriendly entertainer would now be able to peruse all the traffic that customer sends and gets.
In an unfriendly climate, where we have a malevolent machine running some sort of an instrument like Yersinia, there could be a machine that sends DHCP DISCOVER bundles. This malevolent customer doesn't send a modest bunch - it sends a great many vindictive DISCOVER bundles utilizing sham, made-up MAC addresses as the source MAC address for each solicitation.
In the event that the DHCP worker reacts to every one of these false DHCP DISCOVER parcels, the whole IP address pool could be exhausted, and that DHCP worker could trust it has no more IP delivers to bring to the table to legitimate DHCP demands.
When a DHCP worker has no more IP delivers to bring to the table, ordinarily the following thing to happen would be for the aggressor to get their own DHCP worker. This maverick DHCP worker at that point starts giving out IP addresses.
The advantage of that to the assailant is that if a false DHCP worker is distributing IP addresses, including default DNS and door data, customers who utilize those IP delivers and begin to utilize that default passage would now be able to be directed through the aggressor's machine. That is all that an unfriendly entertainer requires to play out a man-in-the-center (MITM) assault.

NEW QUESTION # 74
Which tool dumps Windows hashes?

• A. Aircrack-ng
• B. Mimikatz
• C. Hydra
• D. John

Answer: B

Explanation:
Mimikatz is a post-exploitation tool commonly used to extract Windows password hashes, plaintext credentials, Kerberos tickets, and other authentication data from memory.

NEW QUESTION # 75
An energy infrastructure company in Tulsa, Oklahoma initiated a controlled phishing simulation targeting multiple operational departments. The test email claimed to originate from the corporate compliance office and instructed employees to "complete a mandatory regulatory update within the next 30 minutes to avoid account suspension." The message used a broad salutation instead of employee names and lacked the standard corporate signature footer normally appended to official communications. Additionally, security analysts observed that the embedded hyperlink displayed the organization ' s domain in the message body; however, when examined more closely, the actual destination resolved to a shortened external URL redirecting to an unrelated host. From a defensive analysis standpoint, which indicator provides the strongest technical validation that the message is malicious?

• A. Presence of aggressive urgency language
• B. Use of generic greetings rather than individualized addressing
• C. AThe strongest technical indicator is the hover mismatch URL. CEH social engineering and email- phishing guidance treats deceptive links as one of the clearest validation points because the visible text shown to the user can be made to look trustworthy while the actual hyperlink target leads somewhere completely different. In this scenario, the email imitates an internal compliance notice and uses urgency, generic greetings, and a missing corporate signature, all of which are suspicious. However, those signals are still contextual and behavioral. The most technically reliable evidence is that the displayed organization domain does not match the true destination, which resolves through a shortened external URL to an unrelated host. CEH materials consistently explain that phishing messages frequently redirect victims to fake login pages or malicious sites through disguised links, and verifying the real destination is a core defensive step. This is more conclusive than style-based clues because branding mistakes or greetings alone may vary in legitimate communications. A mismatch between displayed and actual URL directly shows intentional deception in message construction, making it the best technical validation that the message is malicious.
• D. Identification of Hover Mismatch URLs in the embedded link
• E. Absence of a formal corporate signature

Answer: A,B,C,D,E

NEW QUESTION # 76
In the process of implementing a network vulnerability assessment strategy for a tech company, the security analyst is confronted with the following scenarios:
1) A legacy application is discovered on the network, which no longer receives updates from the vendor.
2) Several systems in the network are found running outdated versions of web browsers prone to distributed attacks.
3) The network firewall has been configured using default settings and passwords.
4) Certain TCP/IP protocols used in the organization are inherently insecure.
The security analyst decides to use vulnerability scanning software. Which of the following limitations of vulnerability assessment should the analyst be most cautious about in this context?

• A. Vulnerability scanning software is limited in its ability to perform live tests on web applications to detect errors or unexpected behavior
• B. Vulnerability scanning software is limited in its ability to detect vulnerabilities at a given point in time
• C. Vulnerability scanning software is not immune to software engineering flaws that might lead to serious vulnerabilities being missed
• D. Vulnerability scanning software cannot define the impact of an identified vulnerability on different business operations

Answer: C

Explanation:
Vulnerability scanning software is a tool that can help security analysts identify and prioritize known vulnerabilities in their systems and applications. However, it is not a perfect solution and has some limitations that need to be considered. One of the most critical limitations is that vulnerability scanning software is not immune to software engineering flaws that might lead to serious vulnerabilities being missed. This means that the software itself might have bugs, errors, or oversights that could affect its accuracy, reliability, or performance. For example, the software might:
Fail to detect some vulnerabilities due to incomplete or outdated databases, incorrect signatures, or insufficient coverage of the target system or application.
Produce false positives or false negatives due to misinterpretation of the scan results, incorrect configuration, or lack of context or validation.
Cause unintended consequences or damage to the target system or application due to intrusive or aggressive scanning techniques, such as exploiting vulnerabilities, modifying data, or crashing services.
Be vulnerable to attacks or compromise by malicious actors who could exploit its weaknesses, tamper with its functionality, or steal its data.
Therefore, the security analyst should be most cautious about this limitation of vulnerability scanning software, as it could lead to a false sense of security, missed opportunities for remediation, or increased exposure to threats. The security analyst should always verify the scan results, use multiple tools and methods, and update and patch the software regularly to mitigate this risk.
References:
[CEHv13 Module 03: Vulnerability Analysis]
7 limitations of vulnerability scanners
The pros and cons of vulnerability scanning tools

NEW QUESTION # 77
ViruXine.W32 virus hides its presence by changing the underlying executable code. This virus code mutates while keeping the original algorithm intact - the code changes itself each time it runs, but the function of the code (its semantics) does not change at all.

Here is a section of the virus code (refer to image), where the loop performs XOR encryption and changes the way the code looks every time it is executed.
What is this technique called?

• A. Metamorphic Virus
• B. Stealth Virus
• C. Polymorphic Virus
• D. Dravidic Virus

Answer: A

Explanation:
The virus described changes its own code with each execution but still performs the same actions. This is the hallmark of a Metamorphic Virus. Unlike polymorphic viruses (which use encrypted code with a changing decryptor), metamorphic viruses rewrite their own code entirely - including their decryption and execution routines - to avoid pattern detection by antivirus software.
Key characteristics of metamorphic viruses seen in the scenario:
Mutates completely on every execution.
Keeps overall functionality identical (semantics intact).
Alters its appearance and logic flow.
From CEH v13 Courseware:
Module 6: Malware Threats # Types of Viruses and Obfuscation Techniques CEH v13 Study Guide states:
"Metamorphic viruses modify their own code structure and appearance with each iteration, without altering their underlying behavior. This makes them more difficult to detect through signature-based mechanisms." Incorrect Options:
A: Polymorphic viruses encrypt themselves with a changing decryptor stub but do not change their core logic.
C: "Dravidic Virus" is not a recognized term in cybersecurity.
D: Stealth viruses hide their presence (e.g., by intercepting system calls), but do not change their code structure.
Reference:CEH v13 Study Guide - Module 6: Malware Types # Metamorphic and Polymorphic VirusesNIST SP 800-83r1 - Guide to Malware Incident Prevention and Handling Let me know if you'd like to continue with more malware-related questions or other CEH topics.

NEW QUESTION # 78
Gerard, a disgruntled ex-employee of Sunglass IT Solutions, targets this organization to perform sophisticated attacks and bring down its reputation in the market. To launch the attacks process, he performed DNS footprinting to gather information about DNS servers and to identify the hosts connected in the target network. He used an automated tool that can retrieve information about DNS zone data including DNS domain names, computer names, IP addresses, DNS records, and network Whois records. He further exploited this information to launch other sophisticated attacks. What is the tool employed by Gerard in the above scenario?

• A. zANTI
• B. Bluto
• C. Knative
• D. Towelroot

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 79
You are performing a penetration test for a client and have gained shell access to a Windows machine on the internal network. You intend to retrieve all DNS records for the internal domain, if the DNS server is at
192.168.10.2 and the domain name is abccorp.local, what command would you type at the nslookup prompt to attempt a zone transfer?

• A. List domain=Abccorp.local type=zone
• B. is-d abccorp.local
• C. Iserver 192.168.10.2-t all
• D. list server=192.168.10.2 type=all

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 80
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